I am having a problem with applying the Cramér-Rao inequality to identify the lower bound for the variance of an unbiased estimator and hoped that you guys could help me. The problem is the following:
Let $X_{1},\dots,X_{n}$ be a random sample from the density $f(x \mid \theta)=\frac{1}{\theta}e^{-\frac{x}{\theta}}, x\geq0$, $0$ otherwise. Find the Cramér-Rao lower bound for the variance of an unbiased estimater of the population variance $\theta^{2}$.
Now, the problem itself isn't too difficult and finding the MLE for $\theta^{2}$ wasn't a problem either. By finding the MLE for $\theta^{2}$ (which I found to be $\left(\dfrac{\sum^{n}_{i=1}Xi}{n}\right)^{2} = \bar{X}^{2}$ if I am not mistaken), I already found log$f(x \mid \theta)$ and its derivatives. So since the Cramér-Rao Inequality (for iid random variables) is given by
$Var_{\theta}[W(\boldsymbol{X})] \geq \frac{\left(\dfrac{d}{d\theta}E_{\theta}W(\boldsymbol{X})\right)^{2}}{nE_{\theta}\left[\left(\dfrac{\partial}{\partial\theta}\text{log}f(\boldsymbol{X} \mid \theta)\right)^{2} \right]}$
Also, since $f(\boldsymbol{x \mid \theta})$ belongs to the exponential family,
$E_{\theta}\left[\left(\dfrac{\partial}{\partial\theta}\text{log}f(\boldsymbol{X \mid \theta})\right)^{2}\right] = -E_{\theta}\left[\dfrac{\partial^{2}}{\partial^{2}\theta^{2}}\text{log}f(\boldsymbol{X \mid \theta})\right]$
If I am not totally mistaken with the notation here (we discussed this topic in class very briefly), I found the following values:
- For $E_{\theta}\left[\dfrac{\partial^{2}}{\partial^{2}\theta^{2}}\text{log}f(\boldsymbol{X \mid \theta}) \right]$:
$ E_{\theta}\left[ \dfrac{n}{\theta^{2}} - \dfrac{2\sum^{n}_{i=1}X_{i}}{\theta^{3}} \right] = \dfrac{n}{\theta^{2}} - \dfrac{2}{\theta^{3}}E\left[ \sum^{n}_{i=1}X_{i} \right] \\ = \dfrac{n}{\theta^{2}} - \dfrac{2}{\theta^{3}}nE[X_{1}] = \dfrac{n}{\theta^{2}} - \dfrac{2}{\theta^{3}}n \theta = -\dfrac{n}{\theta^{2}}$
Thus, the term in the denominator becomes $\dfrac{n^{2}}{\theta^{2}}$
- For $\left(\dfrac{d}{d\theta}E_{\theta}W(\boldsymbol{X})\right)^{2}$:
This is the part where I am really confused. Since we're talking about an estimator of $\theta^{2}$, I would have taken the first derivative with respect to $\theta$ and squared it, to get $4\hat{\theta}^{2}$ in the numerator. This would give
$Var_{\theta}\left[\hat{\theta}^{2}\right] \geq \dfrac{4\hat{\theta}^{4}}{n^{2}}$
for my Cramér-Rao bound. It just seems odd, considering the rather simple expressions we usually get as solutions to our problems. Am I on the wrong track here?
Also sorry for asking such a rather simple question. The whole statistics class was just a half-semester course, so we treated some of the concepts rather superficially.
Thanks in advance!