I know a median is $$\frac{1}{2} = \int_{-\infty}^{\mu} f(x)dx$$ I understand how to solve this for simple distributions. However, I am learning how to do it for iid samples, which I haven't done before. In this current case, I have iid $X_1,...,X_n$ where they have a distribution $$\frac{1}{2b}e^{-|x_i-\theta|/b}$$ Note, assume $n = 2m+1$, $m\in \Bbb N$.
I calculated the MLE for this set of samples and want to now show the median is equal to $\hat{\theta}$
My Question:
How do I find the median of iid samples with a a Laplace distribution?
I know for an abstract discrete set of samples like $X_1,...,X_n$ I can order them like $X_{(1)},...,X_{(n)}$ from smallest to largest. I know my median should be some value like $X_{(m+1)}$. But I don't really understand how the Laplace distribution fits into that. To find the median for a Laplace distribution, I would think I could just use that integral formula. But that doesn't make sense if I am considering a discrete set of samples. In short, I think I am confusing finding the median of a distribution with finding the median for a set of iid samples with the same distribution. And I can't figure out what to do.