My stats class is studying sufficient statistics. So far, every example we have done has assumed $h(\mathbf{X}) = 1$ and so all our examples have involved really trivial uses of the factorization theorem in this regard.
Fisher-Neyman factorisation theorem: If the probability density function is $ƒ_θ(x)$, then $T$ is sufficient for $θ$ if and only if nonnegative functions $g$ and $h$ can be found such that $$ f_\theta(x)=h(x) \, g_\theta(T(x)), \,\! $$
I am a little worried this might come up on an exam where $h(\mathbf{X}) \neq 1$.
My Question
Can someone provide a basic example of using the factorization theorem to show a statistic is sufficient when $h(\mathbf{X}) \ne 1$?