I am having a bit of confusion with hypothesis testing basics, could you please help me clear it?
Suppose we are testing a simple hypothesis $H_0:\theta=\theta_0$ against another simple hypothesis $H_1:\theta=\theta_1$ via an iid sample $X_1,...,X_n$. Let also the family of underlying distribuions be absolutely continous with density $p_\theta(x)$ (so that we don't have to worry about randomization). Then the Neyman - Pearson criterion at a significance level $\alpha$, which is the most powerful criterion with a given significance level, states that the hypothesis $H_0$ should be rejected if $$ L(X)=\prod_{i=1}^n\frac{p_{\theta_1}(x_i)}{p_{\theta_0}(x_i)}>c $$ for some $c$. It also follows from the proof of Neyman - Pearson lemma that $c$ should be chosen so that the I-type error probability is exactly $\alpha$: $$ P(L(X)>c|H_0)=\alpha. $$ On the other hand, I have recently encountered a notion of criterion conststency. Since most of the available literature is of an applied statistical flavour, I can't find a proper definition of consistency, but I am assuming that it is analogous to the definition of estimator consistency: $$ \lim_{n\to\infty}P(L(X)>c|H_0)=0. $$ Thus, it follows from the definition that the Neyman - Pearson criterion is not consistent, yet most powerful and just seems like the best thing you can do.
TL/DR: is my definition of consistency correct and, if so, is the Neyman-Pearson criterion inconsistent? If yes, why is it a good thing to use? Isn't consistency more important that power?