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I am trying to measure the correlation between two binary categorical variables. I tried in two ways.

  1. Use the chi-square test for independence of two-way table. The p-value as the correlation.

  2. Treat them as numerical variables with value of 0/1. Calculate the correlation between them.

The results are so different, the first gives 9.5e(-31) and the second gives around 0.3.

How to interpret these two correlations and why the difference can be so large?

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    $\begingroup$ Are you using the p-value to determine the strength of correlation? I don't think that's a good idea. $\endgroup$ – Vishal Mar 30 '16 at 21:23
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    $\begingroup$ The second is a phi coefficient and is fine. But what makes you believe that the p-value from the chi-square test can be interpreted as a correlation? $\endgroup$ – Wolfgang Mar 30 '16 at 21:23
  • $\begingroup$ @Vishal I think since the smaller P-value is, the less likely two variables are independent. That's very similar to a measure of strength of correlation. Not sure it makes sense. $\endgroup$ – fangh Mar 31 '16 at 13:30
  • $\begingroup$ @Wolfgang That's my doubt here also. Can p-value of the A/B test here give the measure to strength of correlation. Why or why not? $\endgroup$ – fangh Mar 31 '16 at 13:37
  • $\begingroup$ The p-value depends also upon sample size, and not only upon the correlation $\endgroup$ – kjetil b halvorsen Sep 26 '18 at 13:46
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The p-value from the chi-squared test cannot in any way be interpreted as a correlation. There are at least two reasons:

  • The p-value will depend on sample size, and not only on strength of association or correlation. With a given non-null association (measure of dependence) when the sample size grows, the p-value will tend to be lower.

  • When the correlation/association increases, the p-value will tend to decrease. So for a given sample size, association/correlation will be antimonotonic with p-value.

So to summarize: the p-value measures strength of evidence, not strength of association/correlation.

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    $\begingroup$ There is at least a third fundamental reason: As the p-value can never be negative it cannot -- unlike a correlation and several measures of association -- carry information on direction of relationship. $\endgroup$ – Nick Cox Sep 27 '18 at 10:37

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