Assume that OLS regression of the form:
$$Y_t = X_t'\beta + u_t$$
Suppose $X_t$ are stochastic, thus standard Gauss-Markov assumptions need to be accommodated. Given that:
$$\text{E} {(\hat\beta)} = \beta + \text{E}((X'X)^{-1}X'u)$$
Now, for OLS to be unbiased we need to additionally assume no covariance between the error term and the Xs. (Even more correctly, that they are independent).
Problem: Isn't assuming that $X_t$ is random similar to assuming that there is measurement error in X (That is $X_t = X_t^* + h_t$), where $h_t$ is a random white noise process. Now, this type of random measurement error in fact guarantees that the error term and independent variables are correlated and the beta parameters are downwardly biased. So clearly these are distinct cases, what is the difference? I don't see how a random variable could not be correlated with the error. Would it be correct to assume that the assumptions break down and betas are biased downward in practice, when random variables are introduced?