Consider a dependent variable $y$, independent variables $x_1,\dotsc,x_K$, a model
$$ y = X \beta + \varepsilon, $$
and an estimated coefficient $\hat\beta$. If the model is correctly specified, the true conditional mean of $y$ given $X$ is
$$ \mathbb{E}(y|X) = X \beta. $$
Since we do not know $\beta$, we use its sample estimate $\hat\beta$ to get the estimated conditional mean
$$ \hat{\mathbb{E}}(y|X) = X \hat\beta. $$
For a new set of observations $x_{1,i},\dotsc,x_{K,i}$, we can predict the conditional mean of the corresponding $y_i$ using the new $x$s and the estimated coefficient $\hat\beta$ as follows:
$$ \hat{\mathbb{E}}(y_i|x_{1,i},\dotsc,x_{K,i}) = (x_{1,i},\dotsc,x_{K,i}) \hat\beta. $$
Now let us evaluate the forecast accuracy. We take the realized value $y_i$ and compare it to the predicted value $\hat{\mathbb{E}}(y_i|x_{1,i},\dotsc,x_{K,i})$. If the two are close, we say that the forecast is accurate.
Here is what bugs me:
- Aren't we predicting the true conditional mean $\mathbb{E}(y_i|x_{1,i},\dotsc,x_{K,i})$ rather than the actual realization $y_i$?
- If so, we are committing a measurement error when using $y_i$ in place of the unobserved $\mathbb{E}(y_i|x_{1,i},\dotsc,x_{K,i})$ when evaluating forecast accuracy. Isn't this problematic?
(One may also think about modelling higher order moments, such as conditional variance. There it is more obvious that the population moment being forecasted is unobservable, and hence measuring forecast accuracy is nontrivial.)