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This question already has an answer here:

I am modeling rates of people given drug $X$ or drug $Y$, working out probability of getting drug.

The drug $X$ and drug $Y$ points have been matched on exposure time (person years) to specific drug.

In this case, is there a need to include an offset term or should it now be treated as count data?

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marked as duplicate by kjetil b halvorsen, Michael Chernick, John, mdewey, gung - Reinstate Monica Sep 18 '17 at 15:36

This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.

  • $\begingroup$ stats.stackexchange.com/questions/11182/… $\endgroup$ – ocram Apr 28 '16 at 11:06
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    $\begingroup$ Some more detail would be helpful. Is a given person possibly given drug X repeatedly so you have a count per person? Could each person possibly be given drug X and drug Y so you have a comparison within person? $\endgroup$ – mdewey Apr 28 '16 at 11:22