My definition of profile likelihood is that given a vector of parameters $(\theta_1, \theta_2)$, with $\theta_1$ the parameter of interest, and $\theta_2$ a nuisance parameter -- If $L(\theta_1, \theta_2 ; x)$ is the likelihood constructed from the data $x$, the profile likelihood for $\theta_1$ is defined as $L_P(\theta_1 ; x) = L(\theta_1, \hat{\theta}_2(\theta_1) ; x)$ where $ \hat{\theta}_2(\theta_1)$ is the MLE of $\theta_2$ for a fixed value of $\theta_1$.
Now, in the normal distribution case where we have $X_1, \ldots, X_n \overset{iid}{\sim} N(\mu, \sigma^2)$, the MLE, $\hat{\mu}, \hat{\sigma^2}$ is found by first differentiating the likelihood function with respect to $\mu$, then setting to zero for the solution. Then, we differentiate the likelihood function with respect to $\sigma^2$, set to zero, and THEN plug in $\hat{\mu}$.
It seems to me that this standard approach is exactly what the profile likelihood is doing. However, whenever I read about profile likelihoods, books or resources never mention the Normal case.
Question: Is what we do to find the MLE of normally distributed data the same as the profile likelihood approach?