5
$\begingroup$

Suppose $X_1,X_2,\ldots,X_n$ be a random sample rom $U(0,\theta)$.

How can I calculate $E\left(\prod\limits_{i=1}^{n}\frac{X_i}{X_{(n)}}\right)$ where $X_{(n)}=\max_{1\leq i \leq n}X_i$?

$\endgroup$
1
  • $\begingroup$ This can be answered using Basu's theorem: $\prod\limits_{i=1}^{n}\frac{X_i}{X_{(n)}}=\frac{\prod_{i=1}^n X_i}{X_{(n)}^n}$ is an ancillary statistic independent of the complete sufficient statistic $X_{(n)}^n$. $\endgroup$ Commented May 27, 2021 at 14:42

1 Answer 1

13
$\begingroup$

Short answer: it is the same as $\text{E}[\prod_{i=1}^{n-1} Y_i]$ with the factors $Y_i\sim U(0,1)$. If they are all independent (i.e. if $X_1,\ldots,X_n$ are sampled independently), this becomes $2^{1-n}$.

Longer answer: this is really a question about uniform order statistics. If the $X_i$ are independent and uniformly distributed between $0$ and $\theta$, then their joint density is the product of the marginal densities $$ f_{X_1,\ldots,X_n} (x_1,\ldots,x_n) = \prod_{i=1}^n f_{X_i} (x_i) = \frac{1}{\theta^n} 1(0\leqslant x_i\leqslant \theta, \forall i)\,, $$ where $1(A)$ is 1 if $A$ is true and 0 otherwise. So all configurations within the constraint $0\leqslant x_i\leqslant 1, \forall i$, are equally likely. Suppose now we condition this distribution on the fact that $X_{(n)}=a$, i.e. the largest of the values $X_i$ is some $a<\theta$. Because of uniformity, the other $n-1$ values are again uniform within the imposed constraint, namely that they must all be smaller than $a$. In other words, given the largest value $X_{(n)}$, the other values are uniformly distributed over the $(n-1)$-dimensional region where these other values are smaller than $X_{(n)}$. So we can scale and rename the other values, for example assuming $X_{(n)}=X_j$, as $$ Y_i = \begin{cases} X_i/X_j \,, & i=1,\ldots,j-1\\ X_{i+1}/X_j\,, & i=j=,\ldots,n-1\,, \end{cases} $$ then these $Y_i$, $i=1,\ldots,n-1$ are uniform in $[0,1]^{n-1}$. Hence: \begin{align*} \text{E}[ \prod_{i=1}^n \frac{X_i}{X_{(n)}}] & = \sum_{j=1}^n\text{E}[ \prod_{i=1}^n \frac{X_i}{X_{(n)}} \vert X_{(n)}=X_j] \text{Prob}[X_{(n)}=X_j] \\ & = \sum_{j=1}^n\text{E}[ Y_1\cdot \ldots\cdot Y_{j-1}\cdot 1 \cdot Y_j \cdot\ldots\cdot Y_{n-1} ] \frac{1}{n}\\ & = \sum_{j=1}^n \prod_{i=1}^{n-1} \text{E}[Y_i] \frac{1}{n} = \sum_{j=1}^n \prod_{i=1}^{n-1} \frac{1}{2} \frac{1}{n} = \sum_{j=1}^n 2^{1-n} \frac{1}{n} = 2^{1-n} \end{align*} I have a more direct proof lying on my desk here as well, if anyone is interested.

$\endgroup$
2
  • $\begingroup$ This is a great answer, but it could benefit by explaining its assertions or providing sources. The most important one is that the $X_i/X_{(n)}$ have the same $n-1$-variate distribution as the $Y_i$. $\endgroup$
    – whuber
    Commented May 25, 2016 at 13:46
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Thank you for the elaboration--it goes well beyond what I expected in terms of detail and explanation! $\endgroup$
    – whuber
    Commented May 26, 2016 at 15:24

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.