Say I have a physical (or virtual) jar or N marbles and I wish to draw n marbles at random without replacement where the likelihood of each n marbles being drawn is 1/N ... how do I do that? Is that even possible?
I mean won't the probability for the 2nd marble in the sample change to 1/(N-1) and so on?
I remember comments on this in a statistical inference class -- would appreciate any comments/help.