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In the book Elements of Statistical Learning in Chapter 7 (page 228), the training error is defined as: $$ \overline{err} = \frac{1}{N}\sum_{i=1}^{N}{L(y_i,\hat{f}(x_i))} $$

Whereas in-sample error is defined as $$ Err_{in} = \frac{1}{N}\sum_{i=1}^{N}{E_{Y^0}[L(Y_{i}^{0},\hat{f}(x_i))|\tau]} $$

The $Y^0$ notation indicates that we observe N new response values at each of the training points $x_i, i = 1, 2, . . . ,N$.

Which seems to be exactly the same as training error because training error is also calculated i.e by computing the response of the training set using the fitted estimate $\hat{f}(x)$. I have checked this and this explanation of this concept, but could not understand the difference between training error and in-sample error, and why optimism is not always 0: $$ op\equiv Err_{in}-\overline{err} $$

So how are the errors $Err_{in}$ and $\overline{err}$ different, and what is the intuitive understanding of optimism in this context?

Additionally, what does the author mean by "usually biased downward" in the statement:

This is typically positive since err is usually biased downward as an estimate of prediction error.

while describing Optimism (Elements of Statistical Learning, page 229)

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1 Answer 1

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$Y^0$ in this setup has random part, e.g. with additive error $\varepsilon\sim N(0,\sigma_\varepsilon^2)$. So for fixed $(x,y)\in\mathcal{T}$, new response $Y^0$ to the predictor $x$ needs not to be the same as the corresponding training response $y$, hence the expectation $\operatorname{E}_{Y^0}$. "Biased downward" just means that $\overline{\mathrm{err}}$ is on average less than the true prediction error.

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  • $\begingroup$ Right, so is the random component the irreducible random error present in the data being modeled, and in $\topline{err}$ the $y_i$ is the mean of data points not including the random error $\epsilon$ $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 5, 2016 at 16:01
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    $\begingroup$ @SpeedBirdNine: $y_i$ belongs to a fixed sample $\mathcal{T}$ that has been observed, and $\overline{\mathrm{err}}$ is mean of the losses over $\mathcal{T}$ $\endgroup$
    – Francis
    Commented Aug 5, 2016 at 20:49
  • $\begingroup$ I think it should not be needs not to be the same but doesn't need to be the same... $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 6, 2019 at 14:44
  • $\begingroup$ @FrancescoBoi: I think these two phrases are semantically the same? That said, assuming continuous error, a more technically correct term to use is "almost surely not the same". $\endgroup$
    – Francis
    Commented Nov 6, 2019 at 15:11
  • $\begingroup$ When I first read it, I interpreted needs not to be as not being the negation of be, i.e. need to be different, not of need. Now I see what you mean, honestly I do not know but I understood what you meant now. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 6, 2019 at 16:45

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