I have a mixed-effects model in which the dependent variable is inverted (
1/y) and the numerical predictors are standardized, but the binary variables are not.
binary variable 1 0.39
binary variable 2 0.31
standardized variable 1 -2.06
standardized variable 2 -0.07
I'm trying to figure out how to interpret the regression intercept, because in my analysis I have to multiply standardized variable 1 with its upper bound (about 1.77 standard deviations) and add it to the constant term giving me a negative value (-0.168). My response cannot be negative, so this does not make sense.
Does anyone know how I should interpret the 3.48 value?