The ssRBM is described as a way to model mean and covariance using Restricted Boltzmann Machines.
I'm reading the paper that introduced the spike and slab restricted boltzmann machine. I have yet do more than skim the follow up paper that fine-tuned the model.
The variables involved are:
$v$ = real valued continuous "data variable"
$h \in \lbrace{ 0,1 \rbrace}^K$= binary hidden variable (spike)
$s \in \mathbb{R}^K$ = continuous hidden variable (slab)
And the idea is that rather than just using the hidden variable $h$ as is done in the traditional RBM, $h$ is element-wise multiplied by $s$, so that one only has a subset of continuous random latent variables, $s \odot h$, likely active for a given input $v$.
The distribution function in the first of these papers (top of page 3 or "235") is written.
$$p(v,h,s) = \frac{1}{Z} e^{-\frac{1}{2}v^T\Lambda v \ +\ b^Th \ + \ \sum_i^N\big( v^TW_is_ih_i + \frac{1}{2}s_i^2\alpha_i\bigl)} \cdot \mathbb{U}(v;R)$$
I have two questions:
What is the purpose the uniform distribution over the "visible variables" or "data variables" $v$, $\mathbb{R}(v;R)$?
The author(s) say
$\mathbb{U}(v;R)$ represents a distribution that is uniform over a ball radius R, centered at the origin, that contains all the training data, i.e., $R > \max_t ||v_t||_2$ ($t$ indexes over training examples). The region of the visible layer space outside the ball has zero probability under the model. This restriction to a finite domain guarantees that the partition function $Z$ remains finite. We can think of the distribution presented in equations 2 and 1, as being associated with the bipartite graph structure of the RBM with the distinction that the hidden layer is composed of an element-wise product of the vectors $s$ and $h$.
Why is this necessary? the exponential term alone of the distribution is Gaussian in $v$ so it is still well defined. After this paragraph, I don't see any other significant explanation or motivation. From my perspective this is an unnecessary complication to an already complete model.
It appears to me that the terms involving $W_i$ should be negative, otherwise the exponential term won't converge when integrated in $s$ as the distribution should be Gaussian in $s$; Is this a typo?
The authors go on to derive conditional distributions with $s$ as Gaussian with mean and covariance parameters dependent on the other variables.