I have a group of events which I guess you could call a compound events.
Each event is something like: $$A=A_1\cap A_2\cap...\cap A_{n_a}$$
I am estimating the probability of the over all event by assuming independence of the components
$$P(A) = \prod^{i=n_a}_{i=1} P(A_i)$$
I have another compound event (I actaully have untold thousands of them)
$$B=B_1\cap B_2\cap...\cap B_{n_b}$$
$$P(B) = \prod^{i=n_b}_{i=1} P(B_i)$$
But since $n_a \ne n_b$ comparing the probabilities between $A$ and $B$ didn't seem fair. Since it is significantly less likely for $n+1$ co-occurances than for $n$ And even worse when the difference in $n_a$ and $n_b$ is greater
So I took to using:
$$P^\prime(A) = \prod^{i=n_a}_{i=1} \left(P(A_i)\right)^{\frac{1}{n_a}}$$
$$P^\prime(B) = \prod^{i=n_b}_{i=1} \left(P(B_i)\right)^{\frac{1}{n_b}}$$
Which I now realize is equivalent to substituting for the probabilities of $A$ and $B$, the geometric means of the probabilities of their components.
Does this make sense to do? Is this an actual technique people use?