# Can variation ratio ever be 0?

I think that it can't since whenever we have data then we have mode and since we have mode it's frequency is at least 1. Therefore, variation ratio can't ever be 0.

What do you think?

$v := 1 - \frac{f_m}{N}$
where $f_m$ is the frequency of the mode and N is the number of observations.
$$\begin{eqnarray*} v&=&1 - 1/1\\ v&=&1 - 1\\ v&=&0 \end{eqnarray*}$$