I'm currently writing a lab report on Atwood's machine, and the gist of it is that $a=a_{g}\tfrac{\left ( m_{2}-m_{1} \right )}{\left ( m_{2}+m_{1} \right )}$.
We're holding $\left (m_{2}+m_{1} \right )$ and $a_{g}$ constant, where $a$ is our dependent variable and $\left (m_{2}-m_{1} \right )$ is our independent variable.
Since we ran multiple trials with the same $\left (m_{2}-m_{1} \right )$, I think we can say that our measurement uncertainty for $a$ is $\sigma_{a}$ (right? ... not entirely sure). However, we don't know the measurement uncertainty for either $m_{2}$ or $m_{1}$ as we were not measuring them ourselves (the weights were given, without to uncertainty). I'm not sure how to deal with this...
Also, as a hypothetical question, if I had a data set $x$ with some measurement uncertainty, what is the uncertainty of $f\left (x \right )$?
Thanks in advance! I tried Google-ing the issue, but so far there's been nothing.