I have the following optimization problem
\begin{equation} \label{logdual} \begin{array}{ll@{}ll} \text{minimize}_{\pmb\alpha \in \mathbb{R}^n} & \theta(\pmb\alpha) &\\ \text{subject to} & \pmb\alpha > 0 &\\ \end{array} \end{equation}
where $\theta(\pmb{\alpha}) = \frac{1}{2\lambda} \sum_{i,j} \alpha_i \alpha_j y_i y_j \mathbf{x_i}^T\mathbf{x_j} + \sum_i \alpha_i \log{\alpha_i} + (1-\alpha_i)\log(1 - \alpha_i)$
$\mathbf{x_1}, \mathbf{x_2}, \dots, \mathbf{x_n}$ are $n$ data points where $\mathbf{x_i} \in \mathbb{R}^d$ and $y_1, y_2, \dots, y_n$ are binary labels for each data point such that $y_i \in \{1, -1\}$
This is also happens to be the Lagrangian dual of the $\ell_2$-Logistic regression problem.
My attempt to show that this is convex was to show that the Hessian $\mathbf{H}$ of $\theta(\pmb\alpha)$ is positive definite but I am unable to do so. I tried following the approach given in Section 9 of this paper. Here they show that the following
$$ \frac{\partial^2\theta(\pmb\alpha)}{\partial \alpha_i^2} = \frac{1}{\lambda}y_i^2\mathbf{x_i}^T\mathbf{x_i} + \frac{1}{\alpha_i(1 - \alpha_i)} $$ $$ \frac{\partial^2\theta(\pmb\alpha)}{\partial \alpha_i \partial \alpha_j} = \frac{1}{\lambda}y_iy_j\mathbf{x_j}^T\mathbf{x_i} $$
and then proceed to state that the Hessian $$\mathbf{H} = \frac{1}{\lambda}\text{diag}(\mathbf{y})\mathbf{X}^T\mathbf{X} \text{diag}(\mathbf{y}) + \text{diag}\left(\frac{1}{\alpha_i(1-\alpha_i)}\right)$$
and if so then because $\mathbf{x}\mathbf{x}^T$ is positive definite then so is $\mathbf{H}$ but I am unable to follow how the author came up with the term $\mathbf{X}^T\mathbf{X}$ in $\mathbf{H}$
I have been at this for hours now and any explanation would be really helpful!