I have the following model:
$r_t=\beta_1+\beta_2\ div_t + \beta_3 \ result_t + u_t$
$r$ is the return of a stock index, $div$ are the dividend gains in percentage of the market price, $result$ are the results of the companies included in the stock index. Also:
$r_t=\frac{p_t+ \ d_t-p_{t-1}}{p_{t-1}}=\frac{p_t+ \ d_t}{p_{t-1}}-1$
$div_t=\frac{d_t}{p_{t-1}}$
$p$ is the market price of the index, $d$ are the dividends.
I am told that it is reasonable to consider that $div$ is endogenous. Is it because of the presence of $p_{t-1}$ in both $div$ and $r$? Is it a problem of simultaneity that causes endogeneity?