Based on this paper by Lakens 2013, I understand there are two recommended ways for calculating Cohen's $d$ for within subjects measures.
Cohen's $d_{rm}$ (which assumes the correlation between measures is known) and can be calculated as: $$ \text{Cohen's }d_{rm}=( M_{diff}/\sqrt{(SD_1^2+SD_2^2-2*r*SD_1*SD_2})*\sqrt{2(1-r)} $$ Where $M_{diff}$ is the difference in means, $SD_1$ and $SD_2$ are the standard deviations of these means and $r$ is the correlation between measures.
the variance of Cohen's $d_{rm}$ can be calculated using the following: $$ V(d_{rm})=(1/n+d_{rm}^2/2n)2(1-r) $$ where $n$ is the sample size. Again this assumes the correlation is known.
Cohen's $d_{av}$ (which ignores any correlation between measures and used the average of the standard deviations). $$ \text{Cohen's }d_{av}=M_{diff}/((SD_1+SD_2)/2) $$ My question is how to calculate the variance of Cohen's $d_{av}$ $(V(d_{av}))$?
Can it be calculate in a similar manner to the calculation for independent groups - simply by substituting $d$ for $d_{av}$? $$ V(d_{av}) = (n_1+n_2/n_1*n_2)+(d_{av}^2/2(n_1+n_2)) $$ if so some elements of this equation appear unclear as the sample size is the same for both observations.
Calculating variance of Cohen's d for repeated measures designs? - ResearchGate (accessed Jan 13, 2017).