# Pearsons r P value interpretation

I have conducted a Pearson's r and have $$r = 0.328$$ and $$p = 0.110$$

I understand that this presents a moderate positive correlation but the $p$ value suggests that I am unable to reject the null of there being no correlation.

Is this merely reported as such or am I required to conduct a further test, please?

• Do you mean Spearman rank correlation (as in the tag) or Pearson correlation (as in the question)? Commented Jan 21, 2017 at 18:03
• There is no further test. The P-value is the result of the pertinent testing. What the correlation means is the next question and should be considered using a scatter plot to see if it is just weak scatter or something more obvious is messing up the relationship. Commented Jan 21, 2017 at 18:10
• If this has nothing to do with Spearman's rho you should remove the tag. Commented Jan 21, 2017 at 18:12
• @Michael Chernick Isn't the question and the answer the same, no matter which correlation? Commented Jan 21, 2017 at 18:41
• No Pearson's correlation coefficient measures degree of linearity while Spearman's measure closeness to monotonicity. So for a given set of bivariate data one could be significant and the other not. Commented Jan 21, 2017 at 18:45

$\hat {\beta} = {\rm cor}(Y_i, X_i) \cdot \frac{ {\rm SD}(Y_i) }{ {\rm SD}(X_i) }$