The BIC is defined as (according to wikipedia)
$BIC = k\ln(n) - 2\ln(\hat{L})$
where the likelihood $\hat{L} = p(x|\hat{\theta},M)$ where $M$ is the model, $x$ are the data, and $\hat{\theta}$ are the to-be-inferred parameters of the model, set at their highest-likelihood point. Although the question could similarly apply for the AIC.
In my case, I am using MCMC to estimate the posterior distribution:
$p(\theta|x,M)\propto p(x|\theta,M)p(\theta)$
However, the issue in a multilevel model is that my model parameters $\theta$ are split into two blocks, $\theta=\theta_1,\theta_2$. Such that only $\theta_1$ have a direct conditional relation with $x$:
$\hat{L} = p(x|\theta,M)=p(x|\theta_1,\theta_2,M)=p(x|\theta_1,M)$
And instead, $\theta_2$ (I believe they would be called the hyperparameters) parameterise the distribution of $\theta_1$:
$p(\theta|M)=p(\theta_1,\theta_2|M)=p(\theta_1|\theta_2,M)P(\theta_2|M)$
which happens to not be contained in the likelihood function I defined, but instead in what you might call the prior $p(\theta)$, the way I wrote it above. Since the likelihood function $p(x|\theta,M)$ then doesn't contain what is probably the crucial part of my bayesian model, I feel like there must be something wrong.
So I have two questions:
1) I feel like I need to include the "forward model" for $\theta_1|\theta_2,M$ in the calculation of the BIC. So does that mean that I should define the likelihood function in the BIC as $\hat{L}=p(x|\hat{\theta_1},M)p(\hat{\theta_1}|\hat{\theta_2},M)$ instead of just $p(x|\hat{\theta_1},M)$? And should it be the highest likelihood point of $\theta_1$ or be marginalised over $\theta_1$:
$\hat{L}=p(x|\hat{\theta_2},M)=\int_{\theta_1} p(x|\theta_1,M)p(\theta_1|\hat{\theta_2},M)d\theta_1$
To me, the latter seems like the most logical solution. Technically I could have removed the $\theta_1$ "level" of the hierarchical model by directly incorporating the above integral into some likelihood $p(x|\theta_2,M)$ without changing the results in $\theta_2$, turning it into a two-level model.
2) What exactly is "the highest likelihood point" in a Bayesian model? Is the point $(\theta_1,\theta_2)$ with the largest value $p(x|\theta_1,\theta_2,M)$ (or however we choose to define the likelihood, see above), or is it the highest probability posterior $p(\theta_1,\theta_2|x,M)$ which will be similar but also includes the priors?
BONUS QUESTION: Are $\theta_2$ really called the hyperparameters, or are they just model parameters and would the hyperparameters be the ones that parametrise the prior $p(\theta_2|M)$?