I'm familiar with direct and indirect standardisation to calculate adjusted rates and standardised ratios (e.g. SMRs).
Is it valid to use similar techniques to adjust means?
I'm interested in the duration of hospital admissions for a specific condition and want to compare the mean duration of two groups with different age profiles.
The indirect approach would be:
+-----------+----------------------+----------------+---------------+----------------------+----------------+---------------+-------------------+---------------+
| | REFERENCE POPULATION | STUDY POPULATION |
+-----------+----------------------+----------------+---------------+----------------------+----------------+---------------+-------------------+---------------+
| Age group | Number of admissions | Total bed-days | Mean bed-days | Number of admissions | Total bed-days | Mean bed-days | Expected bed-days | Expected mean |
| 15-34 | 1000 | 1500 | 1.5 | 300 | 300 | 1.0 | 450 | 1.5 |
| 35-44 | 2000 | 4000 | 2.0 | 350 | 525 | 1.5 | 700 | 2.0 |
| 45-55 | 3000 | 7500 | 2.5 | 400 | 800 | 2.0 | 1000 | 2.5 |
| TOTAL | 6000 | 13000 | 2.2 | 1050 | 1625 | 1.5 | 2150 | 2.0 |
+-----------+----------------------+----------------+---------------+----------------------+----------------+---------------+-------------------+---------------+
Which would allow us to calculate a 'standardised mean ratio' of 1.5 / 2.0 * 100 = 80.
The direct approach would be:
+-----------+----------------------+----------------------+-------------------------+
| | STUDY POPULATION | REFERENCE POPULATION |
+-----------+----------------------+----------------------+-------------------------+
| Age group | Actual mean bed-days | Number of admissions | Expected total bed-days |
| 15-34 | 1 | 1000 | 1000 |
| 35-44 | 1.5 | 2000 | 3000 |
| 45-55 | 2 | 3000 | 6000 |
| TOTAL | | 6000 | 10000 |
+-----------+----------------------+----------------------+-------------------------+
Which would allow us to calculate an 'age adjusted mean' of 10000/6000 = 1.7 days. Which is higher than the actual mean of 1.5 days in the study population, because the study population is younger and younger patients tend to have shorter stays.
Is that valid?
And if it is valid, do you know any method of estimating confidence intervals around the 'age adjusted mean'? I have got the raw data.
Thanks