I know the formula and think I understand it, but I must be doing something wrong.
Assume $J\sim po(\lambda)$ and $X_J=(U_1, \dots, U_J)$ and $U_i\sim U(0,w)$. Then I want to sample from the posterior distribution $(J,X_J)$. So I make a RJ-MCMC move where
In the birth move, insert randomly a new $U_i\sim U(0,w)$ in $X_j$. That can be done in $j+1$ positions.
For the death move I remove a random entry in $X_{j+1}$. That can be done to $j+1$ entries.
So the MH-ratio for a birth move becomes
$$ \frac{po(j+1;\lambda)}{po(j;\lambda)}\cdot \frac{\frac{1}{j+1}}{\frac{1}{j+1}}\frac{1}{\frac{1}{w}}\cdot 1=\frac{po(j+1;\lambda)}{po(j;\lambda)}\cdot w $$
However, I don't believe in this formula because it means that the sampling distribution of $J$ will depend on $w$, which I do not think it should.