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This question already has an answer here:

I am apply log-normalization to my non-normal data. However, when I apply log-normalization, the 0 values is converted into inf, which makes it impossible to apply some basic statistics on the data (e.g., correlation). Therefore, I add the score of 1 to all data values. However, I am afraid this is not a very valid approach. I wonder what is a common approach to deal with such situations.

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marked as duplicate by Michael Chernick, gung, Nick Cox, kjetil b halvorsen, Tim Feb 12 '17 at 17:25

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    $\begingroup$ The short answer is no. $\endgroup$ – Michael Chernick Feb 12 '17 at 13:01
  • $\begingroup$ @MichaelChernick thanks! But then what would be a better approach? $\endgroup$ – renakre Feb 12 '17 at 13:02
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    $\begingroup$ State what you are doing with the data that requires normality. And note that if you have a zero it is not very logical to log that variable. $\endgroup$ – Frank Harrell Feb 12 '17 at 13:46
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    $\begingroup$ Please tell us your problem. So far, after @MichaelChernick and FrankHarrell asked, you've given about half the problem. My blog post [how to ask a statistics question)[statisticalanalysisconsulting.com/…) may help. $\endgroup$ – Peter Flom Feb 12 '17 at 14:06
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    $\begingroup$ Sounds like a problem for Spearman or other rank correlation measure and be done with it. $\endgroup$ – Frank Harrell Feb 12 '17 at 14:53