# Is it good practice to add 1 to 0 scores in log-normalization? [duplicate]

I am apply log-normalization to my non-normal data. However, when I apply log-normalization, the 0 values is converted into inf, which makes it impossible to apply some basic statistics on the data (e.g., correlation). Therefore, I add the score of 1 to all data values. However, I am afraid this is not a very valid approach. I wonder what is a common approach to deal with such situations.

• The short answer is no. – Michael R. Chernick Feb 12 '17 at 13:01
• @MichaelChernick thanks! But then what would be a better approach? – renakre Feb 12 '17 at 13:02
• State what you are doing with the data that requires normality. And note that if you have a zero it is not very logical to log that variable. – Frank Harrell Feb 12 '17 at 13:46
• Please tell us your problem. So far, after @MichaelChernick and FrankHarrell asked, you've given about half the problem. My blog post [how to ask a statistics question)[statisticalanalysisconsulting.com/…) may help. – Peter Flom Feb 12 '17 at 14:06
• Sounds like a problem for Spearman or other rank correlation measure and be done with it. – Frank Harrell Feb 12 '17 at 14:53