I will provide a partial answer because I'm convinced this is self-study
, thus according to the rules for that kind of questions, I cannot give a complete answer.
From the definition of joint distribution between the variables $y_*$ and $f$, conditional on $\mathcal{D}$ and $x_*$:
$p(y_*|\mathcal{D},x_*)=\int p(y_*,f|\mathcal{D},x_*)df$
Then, from the definition of conditional density:
$\int p(y_*,f|\mathcal{D},x_*)df=\int p(y_*|f,\mathcal{D},x_*)p(f|\mathcal{D},x_*)df$
Now, the only way I can imagine your equation 3 can be valid, is if $f$ is independent of $x_*$ conditionally on $\mathcal{D}$. Otherwise, I'm convinced the equation is false. Assuming this conditional independence, then
$\int p(y_*|f,\mathcal{D},x_*)p(f|\mathcal{D},x_*)df=\int p(y_*|f,\mathcal{D},x_*)p(f|\mathcal{D})df$
To summarize, we proved that
$p(y_*|\mathcal{D},x_*)=\int p(y_*|f,\mathcal{D},x_*)p(f|\mathcal{D})df$
Now, you can easily get the desired result if you use the Bayes' rule to express the posterior probability $p(f|\mathcal{D})$ as a function of likelihood, prior and a normalizing constant.
self-study
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