I'm reading about Dirichlet Process Models in "Bayesian Data Analysis" by Gelman et. al.
To motivate the idea, they start with a section on Bayesian histograms. I am a little confused about their discussion. I'm sure it's obvious to the initiated, but alas, I'm uninitiated. I just want to verify that I understand correctly. I understand it might be hard to give an "answer" that's not just "yes" if I'm right. However, if enough people just say "yes", in the comments, I can answer my question by a simulated illustration, or something. Of course, if I'm wrong, then an answer would be correcting me :).
Summary of their description
We have iid data $y_i \sim f$, and we divide the data into intervals defined by $\xi_0 < \xi_1 < \cdots < \xi_k $. That is, $y_i \in [\xi_0,\xi_k]$.
The probability model for the density is
$$ f(y)=\sum_{h=1}^{k} 1_{\xi_{h-1}<y\le\xi_h}\frac{\pi_h}{(\xi_h-\xi_{h-1})}, y\in \mathbb{R}$$
Where $\pi=(\pi_1,\ldots,\pi_k)$ is the parameter of probabilities. We can work out the posterior of $\pi$ under a $Dirichlet(a_1 \ldots a_k)$ prior.
$$p(\pi \mid y) =^{\mathcal{D}} Dirichlet(a_1 + n_1, \ldots, a_k + n_k)$$
where $n_h = \sum_i 1_{\xi_{h-1} < y_i \le \xi_h} $
My Understanding
If we want to get the "Bayes histogram" density estimate, we
- Specify the hyperparameters $a_1 \ldots a_k$
- We calculate the values of $n_h$ from the data
- We sample a bunch of $\pi$ vectors from the posterior distribution and calculate the posterior mean vecctor (or some other estimate)
- We take $\hat{f}(y) = \frac{\pi_h}{(\xi_h-\xi_{h-1})}$ as our estimated density over the interval $[\xi_{h-1}, \xi_{h}]$, ie for all $y\in [\xi_{h-1}, \xi_{h}]$