A bootstrap sample is usually taken to mean that the sample size of the resample is equal to the original sample size. What you are doing is to take resamples from the original sample with larger and larger (re)sample sizes. There is no reason to believe that this will represent the properties of the (original) sampling from the study population.
Say you are interested in the mean of some unknown distribution $F$ (on the real line, to make example specific). The mean (assuming it exists ) $\mu$ of the distribution $F$ is given by
$$
\mu(F) = \int_{-\infty}^\infty x \; dF(x)
$$
where the integral is a Stieltjes integral. If $F$ is the distribution of some continuous random variable with density $f(x) =F'(x)$ this is the usual integral $\int x f(x) \; dx$ but it also includes the discrete case. The point of writing the expectation in this unusual way is that we can see that the expectation is a functional of the distribution $F$, and also that it unifies the treatment of continuous/discrete cases.
Now we get a sample $x_1, x_2, \dotsc, x_N$ from $F$, and the idea behind bootstrapping is that we represent the distribution $F$ with the sample, and investigates sampling properties of estimators of $\mu$ by resampling from the sample. This makes clear that we need to assume that the sample is reasonably representative of $F$!, so we cannot expect this to work well with too small samples.
Now, our sample size was $N$, so we want properties of estimators of $\mu$ based on a sample of size $N$. Suppose we take resamples of size $n$ (possibly with $n \not = N$). Our resamples is a stand-in for samples from $F$ (that is the whole point with bootstrapping!). Suppose $F$ also has existing variance $\sigma^2$, and we estimate $\mu$ by the empirical mean
$$
\bar{x}=\frac{1}{N}\sum_i x_i=\int_{-\infty}^\infty x \;d\hat{F}_N(x)
$$
where $\hat{F}_n(x)$ is the empirical distribution function at $x$. Then the variance of this estimator will be $\sigma^2/N$. Lets say we do resampling but with resamples of size $n$. Then the empirical mean based on this resamples will have variance $\sigma^2(\hat{F}_N)/n$ where $\sigma^2(\hat{F}_N)$ is the variance based on the sample. If this empirical variance is a good estimator of $\sigma^2$, this will be approximately
$\sigma^2/n$. If $n$ is different from $N$, this cannot be a good representation of the variance of $\bar{x}$, so will not tell you about the real uncertainty in $\bar{x}$ as an estimator of $\mu$.
EDIT
To clarify, the error in the results when using bootstrapping can be decomposed in the sampling error (due to only taking $N$ observations), and the bootstrap error (due to only taking $n < \infty$ resamples). By increasing $n$ we can reduce the later, but not the former.
Sometimes one is deliberately using a bootstrap sample size different from the original. See Can we use bootstrap samples that are smaller than original sample?, Subsample bootstrapping
[0, -1, 2, 5]
, and I take three bootstrap samples, they may be:[0,2,2,-1]
,[-2,0,0,5]
and[5,-1,0,2]
(each of the same size as the input array). Now, rather than three, I could also take 100, or 10K bootstrap samples right? So a question here for me is, if I use this approach to say, estimate the variance of a mean estimator here, how can I decide how many bootstrap samples to take? $\endgroup$