Let $X \sim N(\mu_1, \sigma_1^2)$ and $Y \sim N(\mu_2, \sigma_2^2)$ be independent. It can easily be shown via moment generating functions that $Z=X+Y$ is also normally distributed with $Z\sim N(\mu_1+\mu_2, \sigma_1^2+\sigma_2^2)$.
I was wondering if one could instead use the change-of-variables formula to derive the distribution of $Z$. The obvious way seems to be to go from the vector $(X,Y)$ to the vector $(Z,Y) = (X+Y, Y)$. The Jacobian of this is 1 and the result seems at first to be straightforward.
However the result of course is the joint distribution of $Z$ and $Y$, so to get the distribution of $Z$ one has to then marginalise out $y$ by integration.
It is easy to see from the result that in the general case, i.e. Gaussian or not, the sum of independent random variables is distributed as the convolution (see also Wikipedia). In the Gaussian case, how would one go about computing the required integral? That is, the integral
$$\int \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}} \frac{1}{\sigma_1} \exp(-\frac{1}{2} \frac{((z-y)-\mu_1)^2}{\sigma_1^2} ) \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}} \frac{1}{\sigma_2} \exp(-\frac{1}{2} \frac{(y-\mu_2)^2}{\sigma_2^2} d y \,?$$
Or, instead of $(X,Y) \rightarrow (X+Y,Y)$, is there another change or variables that would result in an easier integral?