I am studying time series. I have the following data:
The Model for this Data is given by:
$Revenue= \beta_0+\beta_1{X_{1t}}+\beta_2({X_{S1,t}})+\beta_3({X_{S2,t}}) + \beta_4({X_{S3,t1t}})$
or equivalently :
$Revenue= \beta_0+\beta_1{X_{1t}}+\beta_2(Qrt1)+\beta_3(Qrt2) + \beta_4(Qrt3)$
(I am not sure if it is correct)
Because it is a Time series data, autocorrelation is a problem. I am trying to overcome the autocorrelation problem and I found that I could use first difference. I have some examples but none use Dummy variables.
I also saw that applying this method to overcome autocorrelation will give a stationary process, which I think that we are removing Trend and seasonality
I then used MINITAB and obtained:
Then I run a normal regression analysis selecting DiffY, DiffQrt1, DiffQrt2 and DiffQrt3 and do not select the Difft as it is the trend and the values are always 1. (If I include Difft I receive the following message: * ERROR * Continuous predictors must have more than one distinct value.)
Also I do not include the constant term, as I think that doing first difference we should force the Regression through the origin.
I obtained the following results:
Analyzing the results after fixing the Autocorrelation problem the Durbin test shows a negative autocorrelation.
However I am not really sure if I am doing this in the right way as I cannot find any example using this kind of data.
I need to overcome the Autocorrelation problem in this time series and analise the Durbin-Watson test to check the autocorrelation.
I am also confused, because if we are using first difference to solve the autocorrelation problem why do we still have a Durbin-value of 2.21590 which indicates a negative autocorrelation?
Can anyone help on this?
Thanks