I constructed two uncorrelated series by cumulative white noise, and then applied multivariate Kalman filter on these two series.
State process $x_{t+1} = x_t + w_t$, where $w_t \sim \mathcal N (0, Q_t)$, $x_t = \begin{bmatrix} x_{1,t} \\ x_{2,t}\end{bmatrix}$ and $Q_t=\begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0.5 \\ 0.5 & 1\end{bmatrix}$
Measurement process $z_t = x_t + v_t$, where $v_t \sim \mathcal N (0, R_t)$ and $R_t=\begin{bmatrix} 5 & 0 \\ 0 & 5\end{bmatrix}$
I set the covariance terms in $Q_t$ to illustrate this question. In this case, the correlation matrix of $w_t$ is equal to $Q_t$
After simulation and running the filter for 100,000 steps, I examined the posterior sample correlation of one step differences of $\hat x_t$, and got an matrix very close to $\begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0.25 \\ 0.25 & 1\end{bmatrix}$.
Can anyone shed some light on why this posterior correlation coefficient is roughly half of the input correlation? There might be something that I miss mathematically