A study of daily default rates allows me to conclude that they are distributed as a normal one. Previously, I had to eliminate some of the effects of stationarity.
I have following two questions:
How can it be justified that if the daily default rate is normal, then the annual default rate will also follow a Normal distribution? or this assumption is not possible at all? Eliminating the stationarity effect implies the normal distribution assumption is not right?
Add:My daily default rate for a 3 year sample is normal, regardless of the summer months and weekends. My problem is that I do not know if it is possible to increase the temporality of the variable rate of default and assume that it is normal, because it is another variable.