# Equivalance of reference prior and Jeffreys prior for $d = 1$

There are a number of sources that mention that the reference prior is equivalent to Jeffreys prior for $d = 1$ (see e.g. https://people.eecs.berkeley.edu/~jordan/courses/260-spring10/lectures/lecture7.pdf).

However, I found no proof in these sources. So, the question is how to prove this statement. It seems to be some kind of variational problem.