For general PMFs $P,Q$ with $X\sim P$ then nothing interesting can be said about $\mathbb{P}(P(X)<Q(X))$ for all the metrics I know about:
Imagine $P(x) = \frac{1}{n}$ for $x\in[1:n]$, 0 otherwise, and $Q(x) = \frac{1-\varepsilon}{n-1}$ for $x\in [1:n-1],$ $Q(n)=\varepsilon$ and 0 otherwise. For $X\sim P$, then $\mathbb{P}(P(X)<Q(X))=1-\varepsilon-\frac{1}{n}$, even though all these distance metrics go to 0:
- $\|P-Q\|_1\approx 2/n$,
- $\|P-Q\|_2\approx \frac{1}{n\cdot (n-1)}$ and
- $D(P\|Q)\leq \log(\frac{n-1}{n})-\frac{1}{n}\log(\varepsilon n)$.
With slight adjustment, the following holds in general (follows easily by expanding it into an integral of an indicator function):
\begin{align}
\mathbb{P}(P(X)<c\cdot Q(X)) \leq c.
\end{align}