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I'm reading Introduction to Statistical Learning, currently Chapter 2 about the Bias-Variance trade-off.

In all examples the irreducible error is 1, i.e. $Var(\epsilon) = 1$. I read in Why is the variance of the error term always 1 in examples of the bias-variance tradeoff? that this is likely for pedagogical reasons.

My question is, how would you actually go about to find the irreducible error? Is this even possible?

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    $\begingroup$ You don't, it's a conceptual tool. $\endgroup$ Jun 16 '17 at 15:45
  • $\begingroup$ well, it could be defined as the error of the Bayes classifier. I'm not sure but I think there must be ways to estimate it. $\endgroup$
    – synack
    Aug 27 '20 at 0:47

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