Suppose I have a binomial test, with 9 successes in 12 trials, expected p=1/3. In other words, in R you might do:
Now, I'm under the impression that relative risk is an appropriate effect size measure. In this case, RR=0.75/(1/3)=2.25.
First - is this actually an appropriate effect size measure? Second - how would I put a confidence interval on this? The resources I have found for calculating RR confidence intervals (e.g., http://sphweb.bumc.bu.edu/otlt/mph-modules/bs/bs704_confidence_intervals/bs704_confidence_intervals8.html) assume that the p=1/3 came from a sample with a known n, rather than a theoretical probability.