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I'm running a chi-squared test in R, for a 2x2 contingency table. When I simulate the p-values using a Monte Carlo simulation, it outputs the degrees freedom for the test as 'NA' (but not when I run the test without the simulation).

Why does that happen, and what should I report for the df in this case?

The code:

cont_table <- matrix(
  c(0, 1000, 20, 1020),
  nrow=2, ncol=2
)
print(chisq.test(cont_table, simulate.p.value = FALSE, correct = FALSE))
print(chisq.test(cont_table, simulate.p.value = TRUE, correct = FALSE))

The output:

> print(chisq.test(cont_table, simulate.p.value = FALSE, correct = FALSE))

    Pearson's Chi-squared test

data:  cont_table
X-squared = 19.421, df = 1, p-value = 1.048e-05

> print(chisq.test(cont_table, simulate.p.value = TRUE, correct = FALSE))

    Pearson's Chi-squared test with simulated p-value (based on 2000 replicates)

data:  cont_table
X-squared = 19.421, df = NA, p-value = 0.0004998
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  • $\begingroup$ Just report the p. $\endgroup$ – Jeremy Miles Jul 14 '17 at 9:33
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    $\begingroup$ To all whom it may concern: at first signt this may seem to be an R question, but in fact it is a statistical question (see my answer). $\endgroup$ – Tim Jul 14 '17 at 10:07
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This is by design, you can refer to ?chisq.test:

the degrees of freedom of the approximate chi-squared distribution of the test statistic, NA if the p-value is computed by Monte Carlo simulation.

If you ask why is is to, then the answer is pretty simple. If you use standard $\chi^2$ test, then you compare your test statistic to theoretical test distribution (in this case $\chi^2$ with a given degrees of freedom). On another hand, when applying the Monte Carlo simulation (using Hope [1968] method, as described in the documentation), you simulate the data from the null distribution and then check how often the result as extreme as yours has appeared under the null distribution. In this case, the null distribution is generated by simulating "random" contingency tables with marginals as in your data. Obviously, in case of Monte Carlo simulation, degrees of freedom do not go into equation at any stage of the computation, so there is no reason to report them.

Check the referred paper

Hope, A. C. A. (1968) A simplified Monte Carlo significance test procedure. J. Roy, Statist. Soc. B 30, 582–598.

plus the source code of routines C_chisq_sim and rcont2 that is used by it, to learn more.

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Tim's answer is very good, but I wanted to discuss the issue of the degrees of freedom in a little more depth (to an extent beyond just a clarifying comment).

Consider that the distribution (under the null hypothesis) of the usual chi-squared statistic is not actually chi-squared. It's got some discrete distribution which is asymptotically (i.e. as $n$ increases to infinity) distributed as a chi-squared-with-the-calculated-degrees-of-freedom.

The simulation approach gives (under the conditioning on the margins) samples from the exact permutation distribution (the set of possible tables is the same collection as for the Fisher exact test, but the statistic is different). This is (again) discrete and not distributed as chi-squared (with any degrees of freedom) but since we have samples from the null distribution we don't need to know how many degrees of freedom the chi-squared-distribution-we-don't-have would have possessed. It would be like calculating a permutation distribution for a t-test-statistic, the distribution of the statistic would be discrete (not distributed as a t at all) so the degrees of freedom that the t-distribution-that-this-isn't would have had would be entirely beside the point.

You should not report a degrees of freedom; you're performing an exact test not using an asymptotic chi-squared approximation.

[The statistic arguably has 1 degree of freedom because with fixed margins, there's essentially one cell you can choose a value for and everything is then fixed, but it's no more relevant than it is for the Fisher exact test - which statistic has that same degree of freedom but which people also don't report a df for; the df you report with some tests relates to a d.f. parameter for the null distribution of the statistic.]

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  • $\begingroup$ The "df" reported by the test has to do with the theoretical $\chi^2$ distribution used in the test, but it's not an inherent property of the test. Reasonable synopsis? $\endgroup$ – shadowtalker Jul 14 '17 at 13:36
  • $\begingroup$ Perhaps I'd say it depends on what you look at and what you regard as constituting "the test" $\endgroup$ – Glen_b -Reinstate Monica Jul 16 '17 at 22:58

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