Am I understanding how a Confidence Interval is obtained?

In short: I'm wondering if I'm understanding the concept of two-sided "Confidence Interval" via an example?

Details:

Suppose we observe 5 successes in 20 trials and so our observed $$p = 5/20$$. To obtain a 95% CI for the PARAMETER of this observed $$p$$, we argue this way:

What the unknown, fixed PARAMETER value of this observed $$p$$ could be such that out of infinitely many repetitions of a binomial experiment with $$20$$ trials, $$95\%$$ of the time we capture that PARAMETER value? Now we take two steps:

First, we find the $$p$$ of a binomial distribution given 20 trials which strictly allows 2.5% probability for 5 or more successes in 20 trials to happen in large repetitions (the blue binomial distribution). This $$p$$ can be shown (e.g., by optimization or via Clopper & Pearson) to be "$$0.08657147$$". This will be the smallest limit value if we were to construct a 95%-coverage uncertainty net to capture the PARAMETER value of the observed $$p$$. In other words, this "$$0.08657147$$" is the smallest possible $$p$$ for a binomial distribution given 20 trials that allows at least 2.5% probability for 5 success out of 20 trials to occur in large repetitions.

Second, we find the $$p$$ of a binomial distribution given 20 trials which strictly allows 2.5% probability for 5 or less successes in 20 trials to happen in large repetitions (the red dashed binomial distribution). This $$p$$ can be shown (by optimization or via Clopper & Pearson) to be "$$0.49104587$$". This will be the largest limit value if we were to construct a 95%-coverage uncertainty net to capture the PARAMETER value of the observed $$p$$. In other words, this "$$0.49104587$$" is the largest possible $$p$$ for a binomial distribution given 20 trials that allows at most 2.5% probability for 5 success out of 20 trials to occur in large repetitions. • The interval will differ if you have a one-sided versus a two-sided interval. Jul 28 '17 at 2:45
• I agree with your second paragraph. The interval you show is described correctly for a two-sided equal tailed interval. The figures you show are confusing. I don't see why you produce two beta curves and also don't understand what the two binomial distributions are for. Jul 28 '17 at 3:29
• @MichaelChernick, that's the Clopper & Pearson method, that is what the $Beta$ distributions are for. Jul 28 '17 at 3:39
• I think there is only one distribution for which you determine upper and lower tails. Yes the Clopper-Pearson method is one way to calculate exact binomial probabilities. Also two tailed 95% confidence intervals do not need to be equal tailed. The definition allows say 1% in the lower tail and 4% in the upper (for example) rather than 2.5% in each tail. Jul 28 '17 at 12:32
• @MichaelChernick, I assume by "there is only one distribution for which you determine upper and lower tails", you 're referring to "Normal Approximation" which due to the symmetry of a normal distribution doesn't require two distribution. But I did not ask about that approximation. Furthermore, generally speaking, one-distribution method has limited generality as many important statistics follow asymmetrical distributions for which an approximation is not known. One thing I do want to know, though, how a $Binomial$ distribution can directly be converted back to a corresponding $Beta$ ... Jul 28 '17 at 12:55 