In order to understand how to use and apply Propensity Score Matching(PSM), I read the articles "Some Practical Guidance for the Implementation of PSM" (Caliendo and Bonn 2008) and "Causal Effects in Nonexperimental Studies: Reevaluating the Evaluation of Training Programs" (Dehejia and Wahba 1999).
One of the main hypothesis is unconfoundedness; it states that $$\{(Y_{i1},Y_{i0}) \perp T_i \} | X_i$$ where $X_i$ are the (observable) covariates of unit $i$, $T_i=\{1,0\}$ if the subject is treated or not treated; and $Y_{i1}, Y_{i0}$ are the outcome if the subject is treated or not treated.
I understand the motivation of the hypothesis, and why it is used. However, I have a hard time understanding its intuition though I guess I can state its meaning: Given I know the covariates of an individual, the possible outcomes of the individual are independent of (not)being treated. But, this hyphoteses really means? I also have done my research on the internet and came to explanations such as Unconfoundedness in Rubin's Causal Model- Layman's explanation, but I still feel I don't get the idea.
In order to show my (mis)conception, I have both created and example and try to explain my interpretation. Let's suppose that 90% of people who participate in a certain program are males and poor, and that, in average, the program decreases the unemployment rate of the treated by 4%. Let's also assume that $X=(sex,poor)$ are all the covariates I need to observe.
If I observe a person that is both male and poor i.e. I know "everything" about him, then the fact that that this person participates in the program doesn't give me any information of whether this person is in the labor force?
What am I missing here?