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I am trying to understand the abstract below from Pearlmutter's paper.

Can someone clarify to me why $R_{\bf{v}}\{\bf{w}\}=\bf{v}$? Thanks a lot!

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It's kind of obvious, here:

$$\mathcal{R}_\mathrm{\textbf{v}}(\mathrm{\textbf{w}})\equiv (\partial/\partial r) (\mathrm{\textbf{w}}+r\mathrm{\textbf{v}})=\mathrm{\textbf{v}}$$

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