# When you have two of the same distribution, are they necessarily i.i.d.?

When you have two of the same distribution, are they necessarily independent and identically distributed (i.i.d.)?

For example, when you have two from the normal distribution with the same expectation and variance, are they i.i.d.?

However they are not necessarily independent. A pair of standard normal variates with correlation $\rho=0.8$ for example, are dependent, but identically distributed