I am reading a paper that reports "pairwise p-value"s. If someone reports "pairwise p-value" for 4 pair of values without telling anything about the performed statistical tests, does this make any sense? Is there an assumption of a specific test that automatically comes with the "pairwise p-value" terminology?
Additional info from my comment below: The authors of the paper mention that they are testing whether the mean of the first set in the pair is smaller than the mean of the second set in the pair. Maybe then "pairwise p-value" automatically means the p-value from a paired t-test since t-test is the simplest thing to test for whether the means of two pair of values are different or not?