Given the random sample $\{X_{1},X_{2},\dots,X_{n}\}$ where $X_{i}\sim\mathcal{N}(\mu,\sigma^{2})$, the confidence intervals for $\sigma^{2}$ is \begin{equation} \left(\dfrac{(n-1)s^2}{\chi^2_{\alpha/2,n-1}} \leq \sigma^2 \leq \dfrac{(n-1)s^2}{\chi^2_{1-\alpha/2,n-1}}\right),\\ \left(a \leq \sigma^2 \leq b\right), \end{equation} where \begin{equation} s^{2}=\frac{1}{n-1}\sum_{i=1}^{n}(X_{i}-\bar{X})^{2}, \end{equation} and $\bar{X}$ is the sample mean.
If I have some arbitrary transformation $g(s^{2})$, can I simply compute the confidence interval of this transformation to be $g(a)\leq g(\sigma^{2})\leq g(b)$? If not, why?