I'm currently studying linear regression on this book "F.M. Dekking - A Modern Introduction to Probability and Statistics: Understanding Why and How" where the signal+noise model is presented:
$Y_i = \alpha\ + \beta x_i\ + U_i$
where $x_i$ are non-random, $U_i$ are independent r.v.s with $E[U_i] = 0$ and $Var(U_i) = \sigma^2$ and $Y_i$ are, therefore, independent r.v.s with $E[Y_i] = \alpha\ + \beta x_i$ and $Var(Y_i) = \sigma^2$
He writes that "$\{Y_1, ..., Y_n \}$ do not form a random sample because given that each $Y_i$ have different expectation, they have different distributions" and he writes also that "if we assume that $U_i$ are normally distributed we can use MLE to estimate $\alpha,\beta$".
Now, given this two facts, how could we use MLE on something that is not a sample? Maybe the correct interpretation is that $\{Y_1, ..., Y_n \}$ is i.n.i.d. sample, but, if it is the case, would it be ok to use MLE?