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this appears to be a quite difficult question. As we know, if 20% of the smokers developed lung cancer and 10% of the non-smokers developed lung cancer, then we say that cigarette smoking is associated with a 2-time (20% divided by 10%) relative risk of developing lung cancer. But if 0% of the non-smokers developed lung cancer, what would the relative risk be? And how would you describe the risk of smoking in this situation for general readers? Thank you!    

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Well, you can't give a relative risk if one group has zero risk.

As for describing, I'd recommend that you don't describe the risk of smoking, but rather the advantages of not smoking:

If you don't smoke, you will never die of lung cancer. Period.

However, it may just be that your sample of nonsmokers is somewhat unrepresentative. I'd recommend that you find a few more data points.

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