# mean variance of multimodal distribution

This may be too much of a simplistic question: but is it correct to say that it simply doesn't make sense to compute averages/means of data that is fundamentally multimodal? That is, there is not one unique mean/variance?

Thanks!

• Hi. Thanks. This is what I was thinking as well. Would the traditional definitions of expectation value (which is often interpreted as mean) make sense here: i.e., $E[X] = \int x p(x) dx$, where $p(x)$ is some multimodal distribution. – Thomas Moore Oct 18 '17 at 22:15