# Finding probability of bivariate normal distribution?

Okay so I am having some trouble with this problem. Let's say two variables G and C jointly follow bivariate normal distribution. With G having mean 480 and SD 100 and C having mean 320 and SD 60. Now I can solve problem like P(G < 360) or P(G - C < 400). What I'm having trouble on is P(G = 400). How do I find the probability that a variable is equal to something when it follows this distribution? T

With continuous RVs, $P(X=k)=0$. If you ask about one RV in a joint distribution, that doesn't really make things different.
• Ignore the joint distribution. Imagine a single RV. Now imagine that you have a circle that goes from 0 to 1, with an arrow you can spin in the middle (sort of like a roulette wheel). The probability distribution would, in that case, be a uniform distribution when you spin the arrow: it lands anywhere with equal chance. Now - and this is a bit hard mathematically - the probability of any single number coming up on a spin (like $\sqrt \pi /10$ is zero. the probability it lies between, say, 0 and 0.5 is 50%. It will land on a number, but the probability of that number is zero. Follow? Oct 19, 2017 at 5:30