Consider the linear regression $Y_i=\alpha_0+\beta_0 X_i+\epsilon_0$, where $i=1,2,...,n$, and $\epsilon \sim N(0, \sigma^2)$.
$(\hat{\alpha},\hat{\beta})$ estimate $(\alpha_0,\beta_0)$ and are found by minimizing $\sum_{i=1}^n (Y_i-\alpha-\beta X_i)^2.$
We get that $\hat{\alpha}=\bar{Y}-\hat{\beta} \bar{X}$ and $\hat{\beta}=\frac{\sum_{i=1}^n(X_i-\bar{X})Y_i}{\sum_{i=1}^n(X_i-\bar{X})^2}$.
Let $X_1,X_2,...,X_n$ be i.i.d $N(0,\sigma^2)$.
I have to show that $\sum_{i=1}^n X_i^2$ can be used to construct a pivot to find a confidence interval for $\sigma^2$, not necessarily the shortest confidence integral.
I know that a pivot has to have $N(0,1)$ distribution. Do I just have to show that a form of $\sum_{i-1}^n X_i^2$ has $N(0,1)$ distribution using the fact that $X_i \sim N(0,\sigma^2)$?
I'm not sure how to continue, any help is appreciated.