2
$\begingroup$

Let $\alpha$ and $\beta$ be jointly distributed by the bivariate normal distribution.

Let A and B be jointly distributed by the standard bivariate normal distribution, where

$A=\frac{\alpha-\mu_\alpha}{\sigma_\alpha}$ and $B=\frac{\beta-\mu_\beta}{\sigma_\beta}$

Is is sufficient to show that A+B and A-B are independent, given $\sigma_A=\sigma_B$, in order to establish that $\alpha+\beta$ and $\alpha-\beta$ are independent if $\sigma_\alpha=\sigma_\beta$?

My intuition is that it should be sufficient as the transformation from A to $\alpha$ and B to $\beta$ are independent of each other. However, I can't find any rigorous proof / theory about this.

$\endgroup$
1

1 Answer 1

2
$\begingroup$

If $\alpha$ and $\beta$ are independent random variables, then $A$ and $B$ are also independent (standard normal) random variables regardless of the values of the variances of $\alpha$ and $\beta$, and $A+B$ and $A-B$ are independent random variables too since $A$ and $B$ are independent standard normal random variables. But, as you correctly observe, if $\alpha$ and $\beta$ are independent normal random variables, we cannot simply assert that $\alpha+\beta$ and $\alpha-\beta$ are independent random variables because $$\operatorname{cov}(\alpha+\beta, \alpha-\beta) = \sigma_\alpha^2 - \sigma_\beta^2 \neq 0 ~~ \text{unless}~~ \sigma_\alpha = \sigma_\beta.$$

$\endgroup$
0

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge that you have read and understand our privacy policy and code of conduct.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.