Let $X_1, X_2, \dots$ be i.i.d. with $X_i \sim 1-1/x$. It's well known that $$ \mathbb{P} \left[ \frac{X}{t} \leq a \: \middle| \: X \geq t \right] = \mathbb{P}\left[X \leq a \right]. $$ Let $X_{1,n} \leq X_{2,n} \leq \cdots \leq X_{n,n}$ be the order statistics of the first $n$ random variables $X_i$. Is it true that for any $n \geq 2$, $1 \leq k \leq n$ $$ \sum \limits _{i=0}^{k-1}\frac{X_{n-i,n}}{X_{n-k,n}} =_D \sum \limits_{i=1}^kX_i $$ where $=_D$ denotes equal in distribution.
This would seem to be the case, heuristically, since $X_{n-i,n}$ are "conditioned" to be at least $X_{n-k,n}$, however, I'm not sure how to show this rigorously. Note that I'm not interested in the order statiscis $X_{n-i,n}$ themselves, only the sum.